In Whose Name?

This is a study of Matthew 28:19, one of Jesus' last commandments after his resurrection and before his ascension.

Specifically, we'll be looking at the baptismal formula, "baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost," which, although almost universally accepted by "main line" churches, has caused some confusion in many people.

In studying verses like this, it is imperative that we go to the scriptures first. Only when a verse is at odds with the clear verses on the same subject may we call its authenticity into question - and then only after making sure we understand the figures of speech, manners and customs, time, and administrations relating to the verse and all other verses on the subject as well as to whom they are written, the immediate context, and the remoter context.

This is, after all, the Word of God! God is the Author, not man. God gave His Word to people by revelation (not inspiration). They did not put it in their own words. God told them the words to write and they wrote them down.

So we dare not add to it, subtract from it, or change it in any way! However, if we can prove that someone else added to, subtracted from, or changed the Word, then we're only restoring the original Word of God when we undo his errors.

Having said that, the first place we want to look in any study of any scripture is in the verse. We cannot ignore what's written right there in the verse in order to make the verse fit with our theology. Neither can we get an explanation from another verse if the explanation is right there in the verse we're studying.

It's a command telling a group of people (because of the plural "ye") to go and teach all nations and baptize them in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost (which we would call Holy Spirit). There is some discussion amongst Christians about exactly what "baptize" actually means, but, whatever that is, the group of people addressed here are to do it to all nations.

But notice it says, "Go ye therefore." We need to find out what the "therefore" is there for. We also need to find out who's talking, and to whom.

So let's look at the immediate context. In this case, that's not many verses. Prior to this, in verses 11-15, the soldiers that were guarding Jesus' tomb were paid to say that the disciples stole his body. Verse 16 starts a new thought.

Matthew 28:16-20:
Then the eleven disciples went away into Galilee, into a mountain where Jesus had appointed them.
And when they saw him, they worshipped him: but some doubted.
And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.
Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:
Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world. Amen.

Notice the speaker is Jesus and he's talking to "the eleven disciples." We can look in other scriptures to find out exactly who they are, but from this passage we know that he was talking to disciples. So we could expect the disciples to carry out his command later on, presumably, in the book of Acts, couldn't we?

Now, what's the "therefore" there for? Jesus said, "All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth. Go ye therefore..." (emphasis added). So, because all power is given to Jesus, the disciples are to go, teach, and baptize in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit.

Hmmm. Doesn't that sound a bit strange? Now, if that's what Jesus really said, then we have to accept it. But wouldn't it make more sense if the reason to baptize in the names of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit were because they have all the power? Or, if Jesus has been given all power, wouldn't it make more sense if that were the reason to baptize in his name? But, we dare not guess! So that'll require further study.

It should be mentioned, however, that, like in verse 18, in verse 20, the focus of what Jesus said is on himself. He said, "whatsoever I have commanded" and again, "I am with you alway" (emphasis added).

Now notice it says, "the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost." Wait a minute! Shouldn't it say "names" since three are mentioned? One may say that's an insignificant point, but God is perfect, right down to the last detail! And this is His Word!

Notice, also, that "Father" is not a name. Neither is "Son," nor "Holy Ghost." They're titles. Now, let's say that you believe, as most do, that the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost are three separate "persons." The Father's name is rendered variously in English as Yahweh or Jehovah. The Son is, obviously, Jesus Christ. But what's the name of the Holy Ghost? I've never heard that "He" has a name, have you?

Again, we dare not guess! We'll have to study these things further! But, if we can find no concrete evidence one way or the other, we'll never know!

One way to study these things further is to look in a good interlinear for any variations in the Greek texts. For those of you who are unfamiliar with an interlinear, it's a word-for-word translation, showing the original text (in this case, Greek), and, under each word, the translation of that word. The interlinear I use cites seven critical Greek texts plus the Stephen's text of 1550, which is not considered critical.

And having come to [them] Jesus spoke to them, saying, All authority has been given to me in heaven and on earth.
Going therefore disciple all the nations, baptizing them to the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit;
teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I commanded you. And lo, I with you am all the days until the completion of the age. Amen.²

There are only four variations among the seven critical Greek texts. Three of them add the word "the" before "earth;" "therefore" is omitted by three texts and questioned by two; "baptizing" is rendered "having baptized" by one text; and "Amen" is omitted by five of the seven critical Greek texts. The only major differences from the King James seem to be translating "authority" as "power" and "disciple" as "teach."

That does not clear up the questions posed earlier. So, for the moment, we must assume that the Greek text is correct as written.

Now let's look at the remoter context. Let's see if this instruction was carried out by the disciples. It was, after all, one of Jesus' last commandments before his ascension. Let's find out in whose name people were baptized.

Notice it says Peter told them to be baptized "in the name of Jesus Christ." This is right after holy spirit was given on the Day of Pentecost, ten days after Jesus ascended into heaven. Did Peter forget so quickly what Jesus had said?

This was when Philip went to Samaria. Notice it says here also, "they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus." Did Philip also forget what Jesus had said?

This was Peter at the household of Cornelius. Notice it says, "he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord." Apparently, no one's reminded him what Jesus said, since Acts 2.

These were the believers in Ephesus. Notice it says, "they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus."

Those are all the verses in Acts that tell us in what name people were baptized. In every instance they were baptized either in the name of the Lord, or in the name of the Lord Jesus, or in the name of Jesus Christ.

Notice it says that Paul did not baptize in the name of Paul. He did not baptize in his own name.

This is talking about the Old Testament and the children of Israel. Notice it says they "were all baptized unto Moses."

Notice it says we are all "baptized into one body." Other verses tell us that Christ is the head of that body.

That's it! Those are all the verses in the Bible that tell us in whose name anyone was baptized. Not one of them even hints that anyone was baptized "in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost!" If that's what Jesus told them to do, the disciples either forgot or totally ignored one of Jesus' last and most important commandments!

Since that doesn't seem likely, we must look further for the answer. We dare not guess like so many have done through the centuries. We must be prepared to accept the evidence, or lack thereof, that we find. And if we find no evidence, especially if we find no definitive evidence, we must be willing to say, "I don't know."

The oldest manuscripts in existence today that contain this section of Matthew say, "in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit." But, they're from the fourth century, a time when trinity was becoming an established doctrine of the Christian church. There are only two such fourth century manuscripts, and none older. However, we have earlier writings that quote Matthew 28:19.^3,4,5,6

Eusebius (260-340 A.D.) quoted the verse eighteen times prior to the Council of Nicaea using the words, "disciple all the nations in my name." He quoted it three times after the council using the "Father, Son, and Holy Spirit" formula.^3,4,5,6

Justin Martyr, a Christian who wrote in the middle of the second century, never quoted "in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit," nor did Aphraates of Nisibis in the early fourth century. That indicates that Justin, Aphraates, and Eusebius must have had earlier manuscripts than those in existence today.^5,6

So, we've discovered several discrepancies concerning Matthew 28:19 as written in both the Greek and English versions. Let's take a look at them:

1. The verse doesn't fit with the immediate context.

It doesn't make much sense that the reason given to the disciples for baptizing in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost or Holy Spirit would be that all authority is given to Jesus.

2. The focus of Jesus' statement as written isn't consistent.

It's a bit unusual that Jesus would change the focus of his statement right in the middle, from himself, to the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost or Holy Spirit, then back to himself.

3. The singular is used in place of the plural.

In the phrase, "baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost," the singular "name" is used of three "persons."

4. Titles are given where names would be expected.

The instruction as stated includes baptizing "in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost," but "Father," "Son," and "Holy Ghost" or "Holy Spirit" are titles, not names. Besides, only two of those three "persons" have names.

5. Jesus' command was not carried out as stated.

Jesus gave the command to the disciples but they didn't baptize in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost or Holy Spirit. Instead, they instructed new believers to be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ.

6. The earliest writings disagree with the newer texts.

When quoting Matthew 28:19, the second and early fourth century writers didn't include the phrase "baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit."

So, let's put the historical records together with the interlinear translation and the other verses on the same subject. We've already seen, from the interlinear, that "power" should be translated "authority," and that "teach" should be translated "disciple." (Some translate it "make disciples of.") And we've seen that the disciples didn't baptize in the names of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit.

According to the evidence we've gathered, it's probable that Jesus (and the original Matthew 28:18-20) really said:

It appears that Jesus wasn't talking about baptizing at all, but rather, making disciples of all the nations in his name. But does that conclusion fit all the evidence and answer all the questions?

1. Does the verse fit with the immediate context?

Yes. The "therefore" shows that the reason to disciple all nations in Jesus' name is that all authority has been given to him.

2. Is the focus of Jesus' statement consistent?

Yes. The focus is on Jesus throughout the entire statement.

3. Is the singular used where the plural should have been?

No. The disciples are told to disciple the nations in only one name, that of Jesus Christ.

4. Are titles given where names would be expected?

No. Jesus used the phrase, "in my name," which employs the personal pronoun, not a title.

5. Did the disciples carry out Jesus' command as stated?

Diligently! They went throughout the known world making disciples of everyone who would believe, and all in Jesus' name. In fact, Acts 19:10 says, "all they which dwelt in Asia heard the word of the Lord Jesus, both Jews and Greeks."

6. Do the earliest writings agree with this conclusion?

Yes. We got the wording for verse 19 from second and early fourth century writings.

So, it would appear that Jesus did not tell the disciples to baptize in the name of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit in Matthew 28:19. In fact, he wasn't talking about baptism at all! Rather, he commanded them to go, disciple all the nations in his name, teaching them to observe all of his commandments. And then he promised them that he would be with them until the end of the age.

A study of the phrase "in my name" will give more light on the subject in agreement with this conclusion.

2. George Ricker Berry, Interlinear Greek-English New Testament, (Grand Rapids, Michigan: Baker Book House, sixth printing 1982), page 87.

3. Philip Schaff and Henry Wace, eds., Nicene and Post Nicene Fathers, Volume 1, (Grand Rapids, Michigan: Wm. B. Eerdman's Publishing Company, reprinted 1986), pages 138 and 907.

4. Nestle Aland, 25th edition of the Greek New Testament, (New York: American Bible Society, 1963), page 83.

5. Victor Paul Wierwille, Jesus Christ is not God, (New Knoxville, Ohio: American Christian Press, second edition 1981), page 20.

6. Bob Carden, One God: The Unfinished Reformation, (Naperville, Illinois: Grace Christian Press, 2002), page 131.